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Posted: |
Mar 24, 2015 - 11:11 AM
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By: |
The Thing
(Member)
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I was wondering recently if film composers are totally aware of the cultural differences between the music of their home country, and those of foreign countries.
For example, Ennio Morricone has a distinct style, having scored lots of Italian films. When he later got mainstream Hollywood projects, you can still hear a style that is distinctly his. Obviously, that is down to the composer's own style that he has developed over the years.
But if you get a score for a mainstream Hollywood film, and suddenly hear a distinct "Italian" sound (maybe lasting just a couple of seconds), I wonder if it is an embellishment by the composer, or if said composer isn't aware that a particular "sound" is recognisably only from his home country.
This is not a specific question about Morricone. You could listen to a mainstream score by an Asian composer, and maybe hear a brief motif that you recognise as being distinctly Asian-flavoured (i.e. very subtle, rather than full-on).
Like an American trying to impersonate a British accent, it could be perfect apart from the occasional giveaway slip-up.
Is it possible for composers to get so used to their own cultural sound, that they don't realise that what they consider to perhaps be "neutral" is in fact distinctly identifiable to their home country? Or would the movie producer/director notice this and point it out to get it changed?
I've not really got any specific examples to hand, just something I was musing over after noticing it occasionally.
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